SBA MSK 10 Single Best Answer (SBA)

MSK SBA Questions

A 15-year-old male presents with a sunken appearance of the chest wall. He has been experiencing shortness of breath during physical activity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Pectus Excavatum
  • Rib Fracture
  • Pectus Carinatum
  • Scoliosis

Answer: Pectus Excavatum

Pectus excavatum is a congenital deformity resulting in a concave, sunken appearance of the chest wall, which can cause respiratory symptoms during exertion.

A 40-year-old woman presents with severe pain in her forearm following a crush injury. On examination, the forearm is tense and swollen with pain on passive stretch. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

  • Apply ice packs to reduce swelling
  • Elevate the limb above heart level
  • Arrange for emergency fasciotomy
  • Administer intravenous analgesia

Answer: Arrange for emergency fasciotomy

The patient is exhibiting signs of compartment syndrome, a surgical emergency requiring fasciotomy to prevent permanent damage.

An elderly patient complains of joint pain that worsens with activity and improves with rest. Radiographs show joint space narrowing and osteophyte formation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Rheumatoid Arthritis
  • Gout
  • Osteoarthritis (OA)
  • Septic Arthritis

Answer: Osteoarthritis (OA)

Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease characterized by joint pain exacerbated by activity, joint space narrowing, and osteophyte formation on imaging.

A 2-month-old infant is brought in for a routine check-up. On examination, you notice asymmetric thigh creases and a positive Ortolani test. What condition does this suggest?

  • Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)
  • Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)
  • Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease
  • Septic Arthritis

Answer: Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)

DDH is characterized by abnormal development of the hip joint, and early detection is crucial for effective treatment.

A 14-year-old boy presents with knee pain and a limp. Imaging reveals displacement of the femoral head epiphysis posteriorly and inferiorly. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Osgood-Schlatter Disease
  • Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)
  • Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)
  • Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease

Answer: Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)

SCFE is a condition where the femoral head slips off the neck at the growth plate, common in overweight adolescent males.

A 25-year-old athlete presents with anterior knee pain that worsens with jumping and running. Examination shows tenderness at the inferior pole of the patella. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Patellar Tendinitis
  • Prepatellar Bursitis
  • Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL) Injury
  • Osgood-Schlatter Disease

Answer: Patellar Tendinitis

Patellar tendinitis is inflammation of the patellar tendon due to overuse, commonly seen in jumping sports.

A 30-year-old woman presents with heel pain that's worse with the first steps in the morning. The pain decreases with activity but worsens after periods of rest. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Plantar Fasciitis
  • Achilles Tendon Rupture
  • Morton's Neuroma
  • Ankle Sprain

Answer: Plantar Fasciitis

Plantar fasciitis is caused by inflammation of the plantar fascia, leading to heel pain that's worse in the morning.

A patient presents with a painless, firm lump on the dorsal aspect of the wrist. It transilluminates on examination. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Lipoma
  • Bone Spur
  • Ganglion Cyst
  • Rheumatoid Nodule

Answer: Ganglion Cyst

Ganglion cysts are common benign cystic swellings arising from joint capsules or tendon sheaths, often on the wrist.

A 55-year-old man complains of lower back pain and stiffness that improves with activity. He also reports heel pain. On examination, there is reduced lumbar flexion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Osteoarthritis (OA)
  • Ankylosing Spondylitis (AS)
  • Fibromyalgia
  • Herniated Disc

Answer: Ankylosing Spondylitis (AS)

Ankylosing Spondylitis is a type of inflammatory arthritis affecting the spine and large joints, improving with activity.

A patient presents with acute onset of severe lower back pain following a lifting injury. He has numbness in the perineal area and urinary retention. What is the most appropriate next step?

  • Advise bed rest and analgesia
  • Refer to physiotherapy
  • Arrange urgent MRI scan
  • Refer to neurology outpatient clinic

Answer: Arrange urgent MRI scan

The patient shows signs of Cauda Equina Syndrome, a surgical emergency requiring immediate imaging and decompression.

Total Score: 0/10