SBA Haem Conditions

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Haematology SBA Questions

A 65-year-old woman presents with fatigue, glossitis, and paraesthesia. Blood tests reveal macrocytic anaemia and low serum B12 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Vitamin B12 Deficiency
  • Iron Deficiency Anaemia
  • Thalassaemia
  • Sickle Cell Disease

Answer: Vitamin B12 Deficiency

Vitamin B12 deficiency is associated with macrocytic anaemia, neurological symptoms, and glossitis.

A 30-year-old female presents with fatigue and pallor. Blood tests reveal microcytic hypochromic anaemia and low ferritin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Iron Deficiency Anaemia
  • Vitamin B12 Deficiency
  • Sickle Cell Disease
  • Thalassaemia

Answer: Iron Deficiency Anaemia

Iron deficiency anaemia is the most common cause of microcytic hypochromic anaemia.

A 12-year-old boy with sickle cell disease presents with sudden onset chest pain, dyspnoea, and fever. What is the most likely complication?

  • Acute Chest Syndrome
  • Splenic Sequestration Crisis
  • Pulmonary Embolism
  • Pneumonia

Answer: Acute Chest Syndrome

Acute chest syndrome is a life-threatening complication of sickle cell disease requiring urgent treatment.

A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent nosebleeds and heavy menstrual bleeding. Blood tests reveal a normal platelet count but prolonged bleeding time. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Von Willebrand's Disease
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
  • Haemophilia A

Answer: Von Willebrand's Disease

Von Willebrand's disease is a common inherited bleeding disorder affecting platelet function.

A 70-year-old man presents with fatigue and pruritus. Blood tests reveal elevated haemoglobin and haematocrit levels. JAK2 mutation is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Polycythaemia Vera
  • Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia
  • Thrombocytosis
  • Iron Deficiency Anaemia

Answer: Polycythaemia Vera

Polycythaemia vera is a myeloproliferative disorder characterised by elevated red blood cell mass.

A 60-year-old woman with sepsis develops oozing from venipuncture sites and widespread bruising. Blood tests reveal prolonged PT, APTT, and thrombocytopenia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Haemophilia B
  • Von Willebrand's Disease

Answer: Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

DIC is a serious condition characterised by widespread coagulation and bleeding.

A 35-year-old woman undergoing chemotherapy presents with fever and a neutrophil count <0.5 x 10⁹/L. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

  • Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics
  • Monitor and repeat blood tests
  • Start antiviral therapy
  • Perform bone marrow biopsy

Answer: Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics

Neutropenic sepsis is a medical emergency requiring urgent antibiotic therapy.

A patient develops fever, chills, and hypotension shortly after receiving a blood transfusion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • Transfusion Reaction
  • Neutropenic Sepsis
  • Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
  • Anaphylaxis

Answer: Transfusion Reaction

Acute transfusion reactions require immediate cessation of transfusion and supportive care.

A 40-year-old man presents with unexplained bruising, fatigue, and recurrent infections. Blood tests reveal pancytopenia. What is the most likely underlying cause?

  • Aplastic Anaemia
  • Iron Deficiency Anaemia
  • Sickle Cell Disease
  • Polycythaemia Vera

Answer: Aplastic Anaemia

Aplastic anaemia often results from bone marrow failure or infiltration.

A 28-year-old woman on anticoagulation for a pulmonary embolism develops excessive bleeding. What is the most appropriate next step?

  • Reversal of anticoagulation
  • Continue anticoagulation
  • Perform surgery
  • Administer antiplatelet agents

Answer: Reversal of anticoagulation

Reversal agents such as vitamin K or protamine sulphate are used to manage bleeding complications.